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Is conversion legally tangible?
Vishal Arora

(http://www.sperofor um.com/site/ article.asp? id=7751)

Tuesday, February 06, 2007


Isn't it surprising that the various anti-conversion laws in India fail to answer the most basic question, i.e. when a person can be said to have converted despite the fact that such laws are in force for almost 40 years?

The reason this question is decisive in ensuring justice is because the conversion laws in the states of Orissa, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh require that all conversions be reported to government authorities, failing which a person can be imprisoned as well as fined like a criminal.

Yet, instead of dealing with this issue substantially, the legislatures have reduced conversion to performance of a ceremony. For, these laws assume that conversion from one religion to another is done "by performing any ceremony."

As a result, there have been numerous cases where Christian priests have been prosecuted on charges of "conversion" on account of their performing baptism ceremony. This is despite the fact that, according to the Christian creed, the ceremony of baptism is not a means to convert someone, but it is a sacrament practiced by all major Christian denominations worldwide. That is why almost all Christians, who are born in Christian families, too undergo this ceremony at some point in their lives. Similarly, when a person from a different faith chooses to believe in the Christian tenets, he or she may choose to undergo a ceremony of baptism "after conversion" (some take baptism years after they actually accept and follow Christianity) .

In the court of law, a person who professes to be a Christian is regarded as a Christian - as defined in the Indian Christian Marriage Act. And baptism is one of the evidence, but not conclusive in this matter. As, in K.J.B. David Vs. Neelamani David, the Orissa High Court Judge observed, "I have not been shown any authority in support of the view that a person cannot profess Christianity unless and until he is baptized" Thus Baptism is good evidence, but absence of Baptism does not prove that one is not a Christian".

After all, "Religion is that which binds a man with his creator", as was opined by the judge in Ratilal Parachand Gandhi Vs. State of Bombay (AIR 1958 Bombay). This implies that one's religious affiliation to a particular religious denomination is a matter of one's inner convictions; all the more so in a case of conversion, where a religion is adopted by choice and not by descent. And this may not always be tangible in legal terms, for a person may decide to believe in the tenets of a particular religion, while not partaking in its rituals. In that case, how can it be established when the conversion took place?

Now, let's say there is a tribal who accepts the tenets of Christianity on a particular date, forsaking his former practice of witchcraft. But, for some reasons, he takes baptism a year later. In the court of law, wouldn't the date of his conversion be when he actually accepted Christianity and not when he took baptism? So, how can the priest who performs the baptism ceremony as his Christian duty be held accountable for "conversion" ?

This is violation of Article 26 (b) of the Constitution, which guarantees every religious denomination the freedom to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. In accordance with numerous Supreme Court judgments that an essential and integral part of a religious denomination could be termed as a religious practice, the sacrament of baptism, as an integral part of Christianity, is a religious practice protected under Article 26. Given the above, the assumptions under which the anti-conversion laws operate have made the definition of "conversion" as clear as mud, for which innocent persons are paying the price.

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